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Polygynous Teachings
1- Cases where polygamy is commanded in the Old Testament:
Here are some examples where polygamy is not only allowed in the OT, but it is also commanded by GOD Almighty:
If a woman becomes a widow, then she must marry her brother in law, regardless whether he is already married and has children or not (Deuteronomy 25).
This is to keep the deceased husband's family line from ending, i.e., she should have her offspring from his family. If her brother in law (the deceased husband's brother) refuses to marry her, then she must spit on his face before the elders (Deuteronomy 25:9).
If a man rapes a virgin, then he must marry her if her father agrees to give her to him (Deuteronomy 22:28). Again, it doesn't matter if the man is already married or not.
Let us look at some of the verses from the Old Testament that allows polygamy:
In Exodus 21:10, a man can marry an infinite amount of women without any limits to how many he can marry.
In 2 Samuel 5:13; 1 Chronicles 3:1-9, 14:3, King David had six wives and numerous concubines.
In 1 Kings 11:3, King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines.
In 2 Chronicles 11:21, King Solomon's son Rehoboam had 18 wives and 60 concubines.
In Deuteronomy 21:15 "If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons...."
2 Samuel 12:8 "I gave your master's house to you, and your master's wives into your arms. I gave you the house of Israel and Judah. And if all this had been too little, I would have given you even more."
Understanding the Prohibition in
Polygamy
Here is what Deuteronomy 17:17 that you referred me to says in the NIV Bible:
"The king, moreover, must not acquire great numbers of horses for himself or make the people return to Egypt to get more of them, for the LORD has told you, ' You are not to go back that way again' He must not take many wives, or his heart will be led astray. He must not accumulate large amounts of silver and gold. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 17:16-17)"
In no way, does Deut 17:17 prohibit polygamy. It prohibited the King from marrying MANY WIVES. I wonder what is the limit to that? Certainly it doesn't limit it to just one wife. "Many wives"clearly proves: (1) The person can have multiple wives, but not too much; and (2) It doesn't limit marriage to only one wife. I don't know where you saw the verse limiting marriage to only one wife.
Also, how can you suggest that the Old Testament prohibited polygamy when for instance Deuteronomy 21:15 clearly states: "If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons...." And also Exodus 21:10 allows a man to marry an infinite amount of women without any limits to how many he can have.
Plus also, you are ignoring the fact that Deuteronomy 17:17 speaks exclusively about kings, or one lone king, and NOT about people in general. So even if your translation was the correct one, it still doesn't disprove anything from my argument.
1 Kings 11:1-4 does not condemn polygamy!
1 Kings 11
Solomon's Wives
1 King Solomon, however, loved many foreign women besides Pharaoh's daughter-Moabites, Ammonites, Edomites, Sidonians and Hittites.
2 They were from nations about which the LORD had told the Israelites, "You must not intermarry with them, because they will surely turn your hearts after their gods."Nevertheless, Solomon held fast to them in love.
3 He had seven hundred wives of royal birth and three hundred concubines, and his wives led him astray.
4 As Solomon grew old, his wives turned his heart after other gods, and his heart was not fully devoted to the LORD his God, as the heart of David his father had been.
As we clearly see in 1 Kings 11:2, the marriage of multiple wives by itself is not sinful and was never condemned. It was Solomon's marriage from the pagan women that was prohibited by GOD Almighty, because they were idol worshipers, and it resulted for him to be led astray and follow their pagan gods. I don't see any specific condemnation of polygamy in general in this verse what so ever!
I mean the Bible's Old Testament (since 1 Kings 11:1-4 exist in the Old Testament) is crystal clear about allowing polygamy: "If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons....(From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 21:15)" How much more clearer can it get?
Another case where women in the Bible are admonished
to marry men is when a man enticed or rape a single woman, then she must marry him and she can't get a divorce from him (no matter how bad he is) for the rest of her life according to
Deuteronomy 22:28-30.
Only death can separate her from him! See how the Bible punishes to death the men who rape or enticed married women, but permitted the single women to marry the men who enticed them before marriage.
2- Polygamy in the New Testament:
The Bible in both the Old Testament and the New Testament allowed polygamy. Jesus never prohibited polygamy. Jesus lived for 33 1/3 years of his life on earth among a nation who practiced polygamy. He never even once denounced it!
Jesus allowed polygamy:
Matthew19vs9
I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman a similar commits adultery.
Notice "another woman" got crossed. This is because the word "woman" is not there in the Greek, and the word for "another" also means similar. If we look at the Greek inhttps://biblehub.com/lexicon/matthew/19-9.htm, we'll find this:
Definition of another:"another of the same kind; another of similar kind
Matthew 5:31-32
31 "It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.'
32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.
A man can marry multiple women, while the woman can only marry one man. Here Jesus warns that unlawful divorces will cause women, who would still be remaining married while thinking they've been divorced, to commit adultery. They would still be married to their former husbands.
Keep in mind also that the men that Jesus was speaking to had many polygamists amongst them. So if Jesus was to prohibit polygamy, he would've said that if any married man after today marries another woman then he commits adultery. But no, he didn't even talk about polygamy at all.
Polygamy was Commanded by GOD:
Jesus said: "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke or a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law (the Old Testament) until everything is accomplished. (Matthew 5:17-18)"
There is not a single verse from the New Testament that prohibits polygamy. Let us look at the following:
Punishing divorce with adultery??
Matthew 19:1-9 "1. When Jesus had finished saying these things, he left Galilee and went into the region of Judea to
the other side of the Jordan.
2. Large crowds followed him, and he healed them there.
3. Some Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any and every reason?"
4. "Haven't you read," he (Jesus) replied, "that at the beginning the Creator `made them male and female,'
5. and said, `For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh' ?
6. So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."
7. "Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?"
8. Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.
9. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman a similar commits adultery."
Becoming one Flesh:
important points:
1- In the New Testament, a man becomes one flesh with a prostitute through fornication (1 Corinthians 6:16). A man can physically sleep with multiple prostitutes either in one time or in different times, i.e., threesome, foursome, etc...
2. Examine these statements again:
Matthew 5:32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.
Matthew 19:9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman "a similar" commits adultery."
Matthew 5:17-18 Do not think that I have come toabolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke or a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law (the Old Testament) until everything is accomplished.
Matthew 22:23-32 "23. That same day the Sadducees, who say there is no resurrection, came to him with a question.
24. "Teacher," they said, "Moses told us that if a man dies without having children, his brother must marry the widow and have children for him.
25. Now there were seven brothers among us. The first one married and died, and since he had no children, he left his wife to his brother.
26. The same thing happened to the second and third brother, right on down to the seventh.
27. Finally, the woman died.
28. Now then, at the resurrection, whose wife will she be of the seven, since all of them were married to her?"
29. Jesus replied, "You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the power of God.
30. At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.
31. But about the resurrection of the dead--have you not read what God said to you,
32. `I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob' ? He is not the God of the dead but of the living."
In Matthew 22:24-28, the Jews referred to Deuteronomy 25:5from the Old Testament where it states that if a woman becomes a widow, then she must marry her brother in law, regardless whether he is already married and has children or not (Deuteronomy 25). This is to keep the deceased husband's family line from ending, i.e., she should have her offspring from his family. If her brother in law (the deceased husband's brother) refuses to marry her, then she must spit on his face before the elders (Deuteronomy 25:9). When the Jews brought this situation up to Jesus in Matthew 22:24-28, Jesusdid not prohibit at all for the childless widow to marry her husband's brother, even if he were already married. Instead,Jesus replied to them by saying that we do not marry at the resurrection (before Judgment), and we will be like angels in heaven (Matthew 22:30).
If Jesus, during his stay on earth in that Jewish culture allowed for a widow to marry her former husband's brother, even if he were already married, then this negates the Christians' claim about the Bible prohibiting polygamy. A man can be one flesh with more than one woman. In the case ofMatthew 22:24-28, the man can be one flesh with his wife, andone flesh with his deceased brother's widow
Paul clearly allowed polygamy:
1 Corinthians 7
10 I instruct married couples to stay together, and this is exactly what the Lord himself taught. A wife who leaves her husband
11 should either stay single or go back to her husband. And a husband should not leave his wife.
Notice, no command for the husband to "stay single". This is because he can marry another single woman at any time.
1 Timothy 3:2
Now the overseer [some translations have it as "bishop"] must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife,temperate, selfcontrolled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach,
1 Timothy 3:12
A deacon must be the husband of but one wife and must manage his children and his household well.
Again, let us look at the verses 1 Timothy 3:2 and 1 Timothy 3:12 from the NIV Bible:
"Now the overseer [some translations have it as "bishop"] must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife,temperate, selfcontrolled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, (From the NIV Bible, 1 Timothy 3:2)"
"A deacon must be the husband of but one wife and must manage his children and his household well. (From the NIV Bible, 1 Timothy 3:12)"
Instead, they prove my point about polygamy being allowed in the Bible for the sinners. Here we clearly see Paul addressing the practice of polygamy among the "believers", and
If polygamy was really prohibited by Jesus Christ and Paul would have told his religious leaders not practice it.
Paul would not have seen the need for it.
At any rate, Paul is known to have his own agenda and own words inserted into the Bible. In the following verses for instance, we see in the Bible Paul's words and not GOD Almighty's:
"Now about virgins: I have no command from the Lord, but I give a judgment as one who by the Lord's mercy is trustworthy. (From the NIV Bible, 1 Corinthians 7:25)"
2 Timothy 4:9-13
9 Do your best to come to me quickly,
10 for Demas, because he loved this world, has deserted me and has gone to Thessalonica. Crescens has gone to Galatia, and Titus to Dalmatia.
11 Only Luke is with me. Get Mark and bring him with you, because he is helpful to me in my ministry.
12 I sent Tychicus to Ephesus.
13 When you come, bring the cloak that I left with Carpus at Troas, and my scrolls,especially the parchments.
Titus 3:12-14
12 As soon as I send Artemas or Tychicus to you, do your best to come to me at Nicopolis, because I have decided to winter there.
13 Do everything you can to help Zenas the lawyer and Apollos on their way and see that they have everything they need.
14 Our people must learn to devote themselves to doing what is good, in order that they may provide for daily necessities and not live unproductive lives.
He decided to winter there???
Are these verses Paul's own opinions and commands or are they truly GOD Almighty's UNCOMPROMISED Divine Revelation.
"All Scripture is God's breath and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, (From the NIV Bible, 2 Timothy 3:16)"
Timothy 3:16. So why then take everything he says out of context 2 Timothy 3:16 as the Words of GOD Almighty when they contain clear contradictions in them?
The Misrepresentation for following scriptures: 1 Timothy 3:2 and 1 Timothy 3:12:(Check the Greek word for one and Wife). The meaning of the word "Mia".
This is a detailed analysis of the meaning of the Greek words μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων which are translated "first day of the week" in most bibles. Some believe it refers to the Sabbath day, some believe it refers to the feast of weeks, and some believe it refers to Sunday, the first day of the week. So we will analyze the meaning of this phrase according to the use of these words elsewhere in scripture.
#1. ANALYZING THE SCRIPTURES TRANSLATED "FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK"
#1.1 Analyzing the Greek Word μιᾷ - mia
JOHN 20:1 (NKJV)
1 On the first day of the week1 Mary Magdalene came to the tomb early, while it was still dark, and saw that the stone had been taken away from the tomb.
The meaning of Wife
The Exact meaning of Wife in 1Timothy3:2
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Englishman's Concordance
γυναῖκας (gynaikas) — 11 Occurrences
Matthew 19:8 N-AFP
GRK: ἀπολῦσαι τὰς γυναῖκας ὑμῶν ἀπ'
NAS: you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning
KJV: to put away your wives: but from
INT: to divorce the wives of you from [the]
Acts 8:3 N-AFP
GRK: ἄνδρας καὶ γυναῖκας παρεδίδου εἰς
NAS: off men and women, he would put
KJV: men and women committed [them] to
INT: men and women delivered [them] up to
Acts 9:2 N-AFP
GRK: τε καὶ γυναῖκας δεδεμένους ἀγάγῃ
NAS: men and women, he might bring
KJV: or women, he might bring them
INT: both and women having bound he might bring [them]
Acts 13:50 N-AFP
GRK: τὰς σεβομένας γυναῖκας τὰς εὐσχήμονας
NAS: the devout women of prominence
KJV: honourable women, and
INT: the worshipping women honorable
If you're so big on following Paul's teachings, then why do you allow your women to preach in churches?!
Didn't Paul himself say: "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak;but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church. (1 Corinthians 14:34)"
Why then do you have popular female church ministers such as:
Joyce Meyer and the host of others? What happened to Paul's command in 1 Corinthians 14:34?
Paul also allowed polygamy to the masses, and Jesus in other verses also allowed it to the masses. This article thoroughly proves that polygamy is indeed allowed in the New Testament.
